According to Murray, the word “Easter” should not be in the bible. He reasons that since the word Ishtar (or Astarte) and the word “Easter” sound the same then the KJV translators were in error. Thus proving that the KJV lacks inspiration.
It’s mere presence is just one more proof of the inter-generational Kenite conspiracy.
He implicates those pesky and subversive scribes for placing that word in there in place of the Passover, who knows what else they changed!
let’s take a look to see if it should be in there…
Part of Murray’s standard bag of tricks is taking words that sound similar to words in another language and haphazardly using that as an etymological proof for his wack-a-doodle theology. You see him do this with reckless abandon to prove British-Israelism.
And since he’s been studying the Hebrew and Greek since Moby Dick was a minnow, who are you to question him?
But does the word Easter derive from Ishtar? No. No. NO!
The origin of the word “Easter” has nothing to do with pagan fertility rights. The correct etymology of comes from the German word for “east” which is “ost”. Easter in German is “Ostern”. It is a Christian word.
Our word “east” refers to the direction in which the sun rises, hence the similarity in east and Easter…
“But unto you that fear my name shall the Sun of righteousness arise with healing in his wings;” – Malachi 4:2
The word “Easter” is the perfect Christian word referring to the resurrection of Jesus Christ. In the Greek the word for Easter is pascha or the Hebrew Passover, the day that Jesus was crucified. The KJV translators knew what they were doing.
Easter Does NOT Refer to a Pagan Holiday
My recent position was that Easter referred to a pagan holiday. That position can be seen reflected in the comments below. When I am wrong I admit it.
The main point from the start is, the KJV is inspired and “Easter” should be in the bible. I will give my old argument (which is common) for this and show why it’s not correct.
In Acts 12. James the brother of John was killed by Herod. When Herod saw that it pleased the Jews and he proceeded to take Peter.
And because he saw it pleased the Jews, he proceeded further to take Peter also. (Then were the days of unleavened bread.) And when he had apprehended him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after Easter to bring him forth to the people. – Acts 12:3-4
Peter was arrested during the days of unleavened bread. The days of unleavened bread, they argue, compasses the week AFTER the Passover.
They reason, if Easter should be interpreted as Passover then why does it say Herod intended to bring him out after if Easter if it is to be translated as the Passover. They use this text to support their position…
“In the fourteenth day of the first month at even is the LORD’s passover. And on the fifteenth day of the same month is the feast of unleavened bread unto the LORD: seven days ye must eat unleavened bread.” – Leviticus 23:5,6
By their reasoning, Passover had already taken place once Herod arrested him so Acts must have been referring to the pagan observation.
Struggle as I might I could never find anything in any historical account to suggest that there was a separate pagan observance also referred to as “Pascha”.
“Now the feast of unleavened bread drew nigh, which is called the Passover.” – Luke 22:1
So as we can see, the whole feast including unleavened bread is called the Passover – and this is what is happening in Acts 12:4. Pascha refers to the whole feast that lasts a week and begins with the Passover on the first day.
There was a pagan festival that was celebrated by the ancients that took place on the Spring equinox that eventually came to be associated with the Christian Easter but there is nothing to suggest that the Christian Easter derived from paganism.
So why do Christians commemorate the resurrection day, Easter, on different days of the year each year?
Easter, a Christian observance was recognized from the earliest times of the church. Another article would have to be written to explain why but it has nothing to do with paganism.
It was determined long ago by the Catholic church for Easter to be observed on the first Sunday after the first full moon after the vernal equinox. It mostly had to do with Sunday worship – as Passover fell on a different day of the week each year.
Early on Christians observed Easter on the Passover.
So is there anything wrong with commemorating on this day? No. On Easter we commemorate the Lord’s resurrection not a pagan deity. And besides that we never celebrate Easter on the vernal equinox, the day of the pagan observance.
Murray uses false teachings like the ones concerning Easter to try to implicate that regular Christians are part of the Babylonian system… because they observe Easter, eat sugar coated peeps, chocolate bunnies and let their kids go Easter egg hunting! It’s really a sinister plot!